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The baby has slept in her bed for two hours

hirashin

Sempai
Donor
8 Apr 2004
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Dear native English speakers,

(a) My baby has been sleeping in her bed for two hours.
(b) My baby has slept in her bed for two hours.

Would either sentence be commonly used? If so, can (b) have the same meaning as (a)?

Thanks in advance.

Hirashin
 
Almost same. (A) baby has been sleeping and is still there now.
(B) baby slept in the bed for two hours but it might not be continuous and might not be still now.
 
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